Ok you # crunchers

DOGS THAT BARK

Registered User
Forum Member
Jul 13, 1999
19,471
139
63
Bowling Green Ky
Got a question and would be curious if there is answer.

given
all lines would be -110
all bets same amount

Is it possible to determine what winning % on individual wagers would be required to make 3 team and 4 team parlays a statistical break even proposition.

--or are there to many varibles to determine.
 

BobbyBlueChip

Trustee
Forum Member
Dec 27, 2000
20,708
288
83
53
Belly of the Beast
Going into a new line of business, dogs?

To calculate, you would have to provide the payout information as a true odds parlay, the breakeven percentage would be the same 52.3 % under the assumption that there were no abnormal streaks.
 

DOGS THAT BARK

Registered User
Forum Member
Jul 13, 1999
19,471
139
63
Bowling Green Ky
No new line Bobby-- and I think I did poor job of explaining what I was looking for.
Let me ask a different way.would individual win % have any statistical relevence to players odds of hitting say a 4 team parlay with return of 10/1.

If so is there way to find what % of indiv wagers a person would have to average to make his odds of hitting 4 in a row be better than 1 in 10.

Appreciateyour help--thank you
 

BGFalcon

Degenerate
Forum Member
Jan 3, 2005
5,517
28
48
Strongsville, Ohio
is there way to find what % of indiv wagers a person would have to average to make his odds of hitting 4 in a row be better than 1 in 10.
You are looking for x^4 > .1 . Take the 4th root of each side and you get .56234 or 56.234%.
 

KotysDad

Registered User
Forum Member
Feb 6, 2001
1,206
7
38
DTB,

I'll attempt to answer your last question assuming I understand it correctly.

"...is there way to find what % of indiv wagers a person would have to average to make his odds of hitting 4 in a row be better than 1 in 10"

If you win 50% of your games on average, then your chances of hitting a 4-team parlay is 15:1 ( or 1 in 16). If a book offered 10:1 odds on a bet you have a 15:1 chance of hitting, then obviously you have a negative expected return. I believe you are asking what % of games you need to hit to make this proposition at worst a break-even wager or possibly a positive expected return.

If so, then in order for 10:1 to be at worst a break-even prop for the bettor, he needs to hit at least 56.23% of his games. If he can do better than 56.23%, then 10:1 has a positive expected return for the bettor.

Is this what you're looking for?
 
Bet on MyBookie
Top