Hey guys, someone enlighten me on why the finals format is 2-3-2 and otherwise it's 2-2-2-1. I know it's been like that for years but anyone know why it's like that? To me it conveys more of an advantage to the team without the home court advantage compared to 2-2-2-1. So I'm guessing it is a format to make the Finals more competitive thus more games on TV and less 4-0 sweeps??
In this series, I felt that it was much more critical for SA to take the first game than for Det, and even in the second game I still think it's important for SA because if they go into Det 1-1 with the momentum swung to Detroit would be difficult in my opinion for them to do anything better that 1-2 over those games in Detroit so they'd be 2-3 coming back to SA for gms 6 and 7 with Det only having to win one of those.
I actually think Pop is smart enough to pound this into his players so i'm kind of liking SA for a small amt on the ML tomorrow. You will remember that Pop said that they were in a must win situation when they were up 3-0 against Pho, and he was talking about momentum swings.
In this series, I felt that it was much more critical for SA to take the first game than for Det, and even in the second game I still think it's important for SA because if they go into Det 1-1 with the momentum swung to Detroit would be difficult in my opinion for them to do anything better that 1-2 over those games in Detroit so they'd be 2-3 coming back to SA for gms 6 and 7 with Det only having to win one of those.
I actually think Pop is smart enough to pound this into his players so i'm kind of liking SA for a small amt on the ML tomorrow. You will remember that Pop said that they were in a must win situation when they were up 3-0 against Pho, and he was talking about momentum swings.