Question about 3 ball betting

riverjack

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Feb 7, 2006
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I have been bettting golf for a while but new to 3 ball betting. Wagered $100 on Goosen today at -143 vs Weir/Fujita. Goosen tied Fujita and they both beat Weir but I only recieved back $85 for my wager (Net $15 loss). Is this the corect grading? Seems to me that I should have had a slight profit instead of a loss but the book said otherwise. The book tried to explain it to me but I was a little confused. Thanks
 

lostinamerica

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If Goosen had won outright at -143, your return would have been $100.00 + $69.93 = $169.93. Under the "dead heat" rule, 1/2 was a winning wager, but 1/2 was a losing wager (Fujita a winner). Hence, $100.00 in on the wager, and $50.00 + $34.97 = $84.97 back at the end.

If your wager was on someone with odds of at least +101, you would end up with an overall profit instead of an overall loss in your "dead heat". If Westwood is wagered at +150 vs. Kuchar/Kaymer, and Westwood then ties with Kuchar in beating Kaymer, your $100.00 in on the wager returns $50.00 + $75.00 = $125.00 back at the end on the winning 1/2 portion, for a $25.00 profit. But if all 3 players tie in the Westwood example, you win 1/3 of your wager and lose 2/3, so your return on the $100.00 would only be $33.33 + $50.00 = $83.33, for a $16.67 loss.

I apologize if any of my numbers or calculations are off by a bit.

GL
 
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riverjack

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Thanks for your reply - that makes a little more sense now. I guess I had trouble in following the logic that a win+ tie =loss. When I called the book to inquire about the grading the person I spoke to actually thought it was graded incorrectly. If Goosen wouldnt have finished with 3 straight bogeys I wouldnt have had to deal with it anyway
 
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