was wondering if anybody could answer this for me. I had a 3-ball 1st round bet today Singh tied one player and beat the other. Instead of this being a push I actually lost about 8 % of my original bet. Have had this happen before where I won a small percentage on a tie and win. I'm not concerned about the actual cash as it does not amount to that much but does anybody understand what is happening here? I tried to read their rules but did not learn much there.
Question about grading at Sportingbet
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Thanks smoothie for the explanation. So I paid a "penalty" by being the favorite and getting a tie and that cost me more than beating the other guy. So if the odds are the same there in comparison to somewhere else, I would be better off to play dogs there and favorites somewhere else?
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SS I think that rule would apply most places with exception of 5 dimes version on their 1 against 2 which I assume would be a push there.
since I have not played that much golf until lately and only know the 5 dimes version I have to ask these questions that others already know the answers to. Always appreciate the help everybody.
